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 Posted: Wed Dec 5th, 2007 02:17 am
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Doc C
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JR

Both the north and south began as agrarian societies. It was with the initiation of slavery in the 17th century that the 2 societies began to differ. A question we'll never be able to answer is If slavery had never been introduced to the south and continued (the north did have slaves but eventually all of them abolished it in the early 19th century) would the 2 societies been so divergent?

Doc C

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